Questions
Faith Related Q and A
» I was raised in the CLC and later, in my thirties, started attending WELS congregations. For many of those years I never fully believed the Lutheran teaching on the real presence. The Bible did not convince me that it was the proper understanding. I left the Lutheran church several years ago, however, I'm not afraid of being wrong and changing my position if the Scriptures show me that I'm wrong. My question: I was told as a Lutheran that the simple words of Christ himself, "This is my body, this is my blood" is sufficient proof to support the teaching of the real presence. However, in John 6 Christ talks about himself and of eating his body and drinking his blood. Yet in "The People's Bible" the author says that this language was to be understood figuratively, not literally. I am in agreement with the author and think that it would be supportive of my understanding of the Lord's Supper if Christ's words in Matt. 26:26 were not taken literally. So the question becomes: Why is Matt. 26:26 taken literally and John 6:53 figuratively?
» Is Holy Communion symbolic?
» Can a non-Lutheran guest, who regularly attends a Presbyterian church, receive Communion at a WELS church?
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